Somebody asked me why I refer to Black’s case as Stockholm’s Syndrome, I can’t publish the question because it contains spoilers, so here is my answer, and I quote:

“Stockholm syndrome can be seen as a form of traumatic bonding, which does not necessarily require a hostage scenario, but which describes “strong emotional ties that develop between two persons where one person intermittently harasses, beats, threatens, abuses, or intimidates the other. “One commonly used hypothesis to explain the effect of Stockholm syndrome is based on Freudian theory. It suggests that the bonding is the individual’s response to trauma in becoming a victim. Identifying with the aggressor is one way that the ego defends itself. When a victim believes the same values as the aggressor, they cease to be perceived as a threat.”

Look up traumatic bonding and the Freudian theory from more information.

Also, you mentioned PSTD, and that’s indeed what goes through as an adult but the first case is what kept him 10 years with the abuse.

Hope that cleared it! 🙂
Thank you